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NEW QUESTION 1

300-410 dumps exhibit
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer cannot remote access R3 using Telnet from switch S1. Which action resolves the issue?

  • A. Allow the inbound connection via the exec command on R3.
  • B. Add the transport input telnet command on R3.
  • C. Allow to use the ssh -I admin 10.0.0.1 command on the switch.
  • D. Add the login admin command on the switch.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2

Which configuration feature should be used to block rogue router advertisements instead of using the IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature?

  • A. VACL blocking broadcast frames from nonauthorized hosts
  • B. PVLANs with promiscuous ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes
  • C. PVLANs with community ports associated to route advertisements and isolated ports for nodes
  • D. IPv4 ACL blocking route advertisements from nonauthorized hosts

Answer: B

Explanation:
The IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature provides support for allowing the network administrator to block or reject unwanted or rogue router advertisement guard messages that arrive at the network device platform. Router Advertisements are used by devices to announce themselves on the link. The IPv6 Router Advertisement Guard feature analyzes these router advertisements and filters out router advertisements that are sent by unauthorized devices.
Certain switch platforms can already implement some level of rogue RA filtering by the administrator configuring Access Control Lists (ACLs) that block RA ICMP messages that might be inbound on “user” ports.
Reference: https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/rfc6104

NEW QUESTION 3

300-410 dumps exhibit
300-410 dumps exhibit
300-410 dumps exhibit
R1 cannot receive the R2 Interfaces with individual prefixes. What must be reconfigured to advertise R2 Interfaces to R1?

  • A. EIGRP process on R2 by removing the stub command Keyword summary
  • B. interface FastEthernet0/1 on R2 with an EIGRP summary for all three loopback prefixes
  • C. EIGRP process on R2 with the command stub summary receive-only
  • D. ElGRP process on R2 with the command stub summary connected

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4

Which IPv6 first hop security feature controls the traffic necessary for proper discovery of neighbor device operation and performance?

  • A. RA Throttling
  • B. Source or Destination Guard
  • C. ND Multicast Suppression
  • D. IPv6 Snooping

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.
300-410 dumps exhibit
A network administrator is using the DNA Assurance Dashboard panel to troubleshoot an OSPF adjacency that failed between Edge_NYC interface GigabitEthernet1/3 with Neighbor Edge_SNJ. The administrator observes that the neighborship is stuck in exstart state. How does the administrator fix this issue?

  • A. Configure to match the OSPF interface speed and duplex settings on both routers.
  • B. Configure to match the OSPF interface MTU settings on both routers.
  • C. Configure to match the OSPF interface unique IP address and subnet mask on both routers.
  • D. Configure to match the OSPF interface network types on both routers.

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13684-12.html

NEW QUESTION 6

Refer to the exhibit.
300-410 dumps exhibit
A network engineer applied a filter for LSA traffic on OSPFv3 interarea routes on the area 5 ABR to protect advertising the internal routes of area 5 to the business partner network. All other areas should receive the area 5 internal routes. After the respective route filtering configuration is applied on the ABR, area 5 routes are not visible on any of the areas. How must the filter list be applied on the ABR to resolve this issue?

  • A. in the “in” direction for area 5 on router R1
  • B. in the “out” direction for area 5 on router R1
  • C. in the “in” direction for area 20 on router R2
  • D. in the “out” direction for area 20 on router R2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7

What is the function of BFD?

  • A. It provides uniform failure detection regardless of media type.
  • B. It creates high CPU utilization on hardware deployments.
  • C. It negotiates to the highest version if the neighbor version differs.
  • D. It provides uniform failure detection on the same media type.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit.
300-410 dumps exhibit
300-410 dumps exhibit
An engineer identifier a Layer 2 loop using DNAC. Which command fixes the problem in the SF-D9300-1 switch?

  • A. no spanning-tree uplinkfast
  • B. spanning-tree loopguard default
  • C. spanning-tree backbonesfast
  • D. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and management/dnacenter/tech_notes/b_dnac_sda_lan_automation_deployment.html

NEW QUESTION 9

Which transport layer protocol is used to form LDP sessions?

  • A. UDP
  • B. SCTP
  • C. TCP
  • D. RDP

Answer: C

Explanation:
LDP multicasts hello messages to a well-known UDP port (646) in order to discover neighbors. Once the discovery is accomplished, a TCP connection (port 646) is established and the LDP session begins. LDP keepalives ensure the health of the session. Thanks to the LDP session, LDP messages create the label mappings required for a FEC. Withdraw messages are used when FECs need to be torn down.

NEW QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit.
300-410 dumps exhibit
Which action resolves the adjacency issue?

  • A. Match the hello interval timers.
  • B. Configure the same EIGRP process IDs.
  • C. Match the authentication keys.
  • D. Configure the same autonomous system numbers.

Answer: D

Explanation:
EIGRP does not have process ID as it uses Autonomous System (AS) numbers only. This is not an authentication problem or we would see this error from the debug:
EIGRP: Ethernet0/0: ignored packet from 10.1.1.3, opcode = 1 (missing authentication or key-chain missing) If the AS numbers between two routers are different then the neighbor relationship cannot be formed.

NEW QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit.
300-410 dumps exhibit
The Customer Edge router (AS 65500) wants to use ASC100 as the preferred ISP for all external routes.
300-410 dumps exhibit
This configuration failed to send routes to AS 100 as the preferred path. Which set of configuration resolves the issue?
300-410 dumps exhibit

  • A. Option A
  • B. Option B
  • C. Option C
  • D. Option D

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit.
300-410 dumps exhibit
Which set of commands restore reachability to loopback0?
A)
300-410 dumps exhibit
B)
300-410 dumps exhibit
C)
300-410 dumps exhibit
D)
300-410 dumps exhibit

  • A. Option A
  • B. Option B
  • C. Option C
  • D. Option D

Answer: A

Explanation:
We tested this config in GNS3 (except the LAN interface) but R1 loopback0 was advertised normally on R2 and R2 could reach this loopback0.
300-410 dumps exhibit
300-410 dumps exhibit
Note: Although the configured loopback address is 4.4.4.4/24 but by default OSPF will advertise this route to loopback0 as 4.4.4.4/32 (most specific route to that loopback). In order to override this, we have to change the network type to point-to-point. After this OSPF will advertise the address to loopback as 4.4.4.0/24.

NEW QUESTION 13

300-410 dumps exhibit
Refer to the exhibit. After recovering from a power failure. Ethernet0/1 stayed down while Ethernet0/0 returned to the up/up state The default route through ISP1 was not reinstated m the routing table until Ethernet0/1 also came up Which action resolves the issue?

  • A. Reference the track object 1 in both static default routes
  • B. Remove the references to the interface names from both static default routes
  • C. Configure the default route through ISP1 with a higher administrative distance than 2.
  • D. Add a static route to the 8 8.8 8/32 destination through the next hop 203.0.113.1

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14

300-410 dumps exhibit
Refer to the exhibit Which action ensures that 10 10 10 0/24 reaches 10 10 20 0/24 through the direct link between R1 and R2?

  • A. Configure R1 and R2 LAN links as nonpassive.
  • B. Configure R1 and R2 links under area 1
  • C. Configure OSPF link cost to 1 between R1 and R2
  • D. Configure OSPF path cost to 3 between R1 and R2

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 15

Which routing protocol is used by the PE router to advertise routes to a CE router without redistribution or static after removing the RD tag from the P router?

  • A. IS-IS
  • B. OSPF
  • C. BGPIPv4
  • D. MP-BGP

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16

Which technique removes the outermost label of an MPLS-tagged packet before the packet is forwarded to an adjacent LER?

  • A. label swap
  • B. explicit-null
  • C. label imposition
  • D. PHP

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 17

300-410 dumps exhibit
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured router R3 to redistribute the prefix 10.10.10.0/24 from OSPF into EIGRP R1 has no connectivity to the prefix. Which action enables receipt of prefixes on R1?

  • A. R3 is advertising the 10.20.20 0'24 prefix with a TTL of 1, R3 must set the TTL to 2 for this prefix.
  • B. R1 docs not have a neighbor relationship with R2. The EIGRP process should be cleared on R1.
  • C. Duplicate router IDs on R1 and R3, R1 should modify its router ID.
  • D. R1 is not receiving the next-hop IP address of R3. R2 must enable the network 10 20.20.0V24 within EIGRP.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 18
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