NEW QUESTION 1

A network consultant is installing a new wireless network with the following specifications:
5GHz
1,300Mbps 20/40/80MHz
Which of the following standards should the network consultant use?

• A. 802.11a
• B. 802.11ac
• C. 802.11b
• D. 802.11n

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2

A technician is implementing a new wireless network to serve guests at a local office. The network needs to provide Internet access but disallow associated stations from communicating with each other. Which of the following would BEST accomplish this requirement?

• A. Wireless client isolation
• B. Port security
• C. Device geofencing
• D. DHCP snooping

Answer: A

Explanation:
Wireless client isolation is a feature on wireless routers that limits the connectivity between wireless devices connected to the same network. It prevents them from accessing resources on other wireless or wired devices, as a security measure to reduce attacks and threats. This feature can be useful for guest and BYOD SSIDs, but it can also be disabled on the router’s settings. References: https://www.howtogeek.com/179089/lock-down-your-wi-fi-network-with-your-routers-wireless-isolation-option/

NEW QUESTION 3

A company realizes that only half of its employees work in the office, and the employees who work from home no longer need a computer at the office. Which of the following security measures should the network administrator implement when removing a computer from a cubicle?

• A. Disable DHCP on the computer being removed.
• B. Place the switch port in a private VLAN.
• C. Apply a firewall rule to block the computer's IP address.
• D. Remove the employee's network access.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best security measure to implement when removing a computer from a cubicle is to remove the employee’s network access. This will prevent the employee from accessing any network resources or data from the computer, as well as prevent any unauthorized users from using the computer to access the network. Removing the employee’s network access can be done by deleting or disabling the user account, revoking the credentials, or changing the permissions.
The other options are not as effective or necessary as removing the employee’s network access. They are:
•Disabling DHCP on the computer being removed will prevent the computer from obtaining an IP address from the network, but it will not prevent the computer from using a static IP address or accessing the network through another device.
•Placing the switch port in a private VLAN will isolate the computer from other devices on the network, but it will not prevent the computer from accessing the network through another port or device.
•Applying a firewall rule to block the computer’s IP address will prevent the computer from communicating with the network, but it will not prevent the computer from changing its IP address or accessing the network through another device.
References
1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - O’Reilly Media 2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: 10 Ways to Secure Office Workstations - Computer Security

NEW QUESTION 4

Several WIFI users are reporting the inability to connect to the network. WLAN users on the guest network are able to access all network resources without any performance issues. The following table summarizes the findings after a site survey of the area in question:

Which of the following should a wireless technician do NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?

• A. Reconfigure the channels to reduce overlap
• B. Replace the omni antennas with directional antennas
• C. Update the SSIDs on all the APs
• D. Decrease power in AP 3 and AP 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Based on the site survey table, we can see that AP 2, AP 3, and AP 4 are all broadcasting on the same channel, which can cause interference and affect performance. Therefore, the next step a wireless technician should take to troubleshoot this issue is to reconfigure the channels to reduce overlap. This will help to improve network performance and eliminate any interference.
References:
✑ Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.8: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common wireless problems and perform site surveys.

NEW QUESTION 5

A network administrator has received calls every day for the past few weeks from three users who cannot access the network. The administrator asks all the users to reboot their PCs, but the same users still cannot access the system. The following day, three different users report the same issue, and the administrator asks them all to reboot their PCs; however, this does not fix the issue. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

• A. Incorrect firewall settings
• B. Inappropriate VLAN assignment
• C. Hardware failure
• D. Overloaded CAM table in switch
• E. DHCP scope exhaustion

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 6

A local firm has hired a consulting company to clean up its IT infrastructure. The consulting company notices remote printing is accomplished by port forwarding via publicly accessible IPs through the firm's firewall Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate way to enable secure remote printing?

• A. SSH
• B. VPN
• C. Telnet
• D. SSL

Answer: B

Explanation:
VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the most appropriate way to enable secure remote printing. VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted tunnel over a public network such as the Internet. It allows remote users or sites to access a private network as if they were directly connected to it. VPN can be used for various purposes such as accessing corporate resources, bypassing geo-restrictions, or enhancing privacy and security. VPN can also be used for remote printing by allowing users to connect to a printer on the private network and send print jobs securely over the VPN tunnel. References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation- ike-protocols/14106-how-vpn-works.html

NEW QUESTION 7

Which of the following would be used to indicate when unauthorized access to physical internal hardware has occurred?

• A. Motion detectors
• B. Radio frequency identification tags
• C. Tamper evident seal
• D. Locking racks

Answer: C

Explanation:
A tamper evident seal is a device or material that provides a visible indication of unauthorized access to physical internal hardware. Tamper evident seals can be stickers, labels, tapes, locks, or seals that are designed to break, tear, or change color when someone tries to open, remove, or tamper with them. Tamper evident seals can help deter and detect physical security breaches, such as theft, vandalism, or sabotage of hardware devices12. Tamper evident seals can also provide evidence for forensic analysis and legal action3.
References
1 - What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices 2 - Device Physical Security Guideline | Information Security Office
3 - What is unauthorized physical access? – Heimduo

NEW QUESTION 8

Which of the following would MOST likely utilize PoE?

• A. A camera
• B. A printer
• C. A hub
• D. A modem

Answer: A

Explanation:
A camera is most likely to utilize PoE (Power over Ethernet). PoE is a technology that allows electrical power to be delivered over Ethernet cables. It is used to power a variety of devices, such as cameras, phones, access points, and other networking equipment.Cameras are particularly well-suited for PoE because they are often installed in locations where it is difficult or impossible to run electrical power. By using PoE, cameras can be powered directly over the Ethernet cable, eliminating the need for separate power cables and outlets.Other devices, such as printers, hubs, and modems, are less likely to utilize PoE because they typically do not need to be powered over Ethernet. These devices are usually powered by AC (alternating current) power and are typically connected to a power outlet rather than an Ethernet cable.

NEW QUESTION 9

An attacker sends more connection requests than a server can handle, causing the server to crash- Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?

• A. ARP poisoning
• B. Denial-of-service
• C. MAC flooding
• D. On-path

Answer: B

Explanation:
A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is an example of an attack where an attacker sends more connection requests than a server can handle, causing the server to crash. A DoS attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to disrupt the normal functioning of a network service or resource by overwhelming it with excessive or malformed traffic. A DoS attack can prevent legitimate users from accessing the service or resource, resulting in degraded performance, unavailability, or data loss. A DoS attack can target various network layers, protocols, or components, such as servers, routers, firewalls, or applications. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is a Denial-of-Service (DoS) Attack? | Cisco

NEW QUESTION 10

A network engineer is investigating reports of poor network performance. Upon reviewing a report, the engineer finds that jitter at the office is greater than 10ms on the only WAN connection available. Which of the following would be MOST affected by this statistic?

• A. A VoIP sales call with a customer
• B. An in-office video call with a coworker
• C. Routing table from the ISP
• D. Firewall CPU processing time

Answer: A

Explanation:
A VoIP sales call with a customer would be most affected by jitter greater than 10ms on the WAN connection. Jitter is the variation in delay of packets arriving at the destination. It can cause choppy or distorted audio quality for VoIP applications, especially over WAN links that have limited bandwidth and high latency. The recommended jitter for VoIP is less than 10ms. References: https://www.voip-info.org/voip-jitter/

NEW QUESTION 11

A user reports that the internet seems slow on a workstation, but no other users have reported any issues. The server team confirms the servers are functioning normally. A technician suspects something specific to the user's computer is overutilizing bandwidth. Which of the following commands should the technician use to further investigate the issue?

• A. nmap
• B. tcpdump
• C. netstat
• D. nslookup

Answer: C

Explanation:
netstat is a command-line tool that displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more. It can help the technician identify which processes or applications are using the network bandwidth on the user’s computer. netstat can also show the current bandwidth usage in bytes per second for each network interface.
References
✑ netstat - Wikipedia provides an overview of the netstat tool and its features.
✑ How to get current bandwidth usage from command line using built-in Linux tools?
- Super User explains how to use netstat and other tools to monitor bandwidth usage on Linux systems.
✑ Get network utilization from command line - Super User shows how to use typeperf and other tools to monitor bandwidth usage on Windows systems.

NEW QUESTION 12

To find the best subnet mask that meets the requirement of six usable IP addresses, we need to calculate the number of host bits and the number of host addresses for each option. The number of host bits is the number of 0s in the binary representation of the subnet mask, and the number of host addresses is 2^host bits - 2 (the -2 is to exclude the network address and the broadcast address). The option that has the smallest number of host addresses that is greater than or equal to six is the best choice. Here are the calculations for each option:

• A. 255.255.255.128Binary: 11111111.11111111.11111111.10000000Host bits: 7Host addresses: 2^7 - 2 = 126 - 2 = 124This option has too many host addresses for the requirement.
• B. 255.255.255.192Binary: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11000000Host bits: 6Host addresses: 2^6 - 2 = 64 - 2 = 62This option also has too many host addresses for the requirement.
• C. 255.255.255.224Binary: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000Host bits: 5Host addresses: 2^5 - 2 = 32 - 2 = 30This option has the smallest number of host addresses that is greater than or equal to six, so this is the best choice.
• D. 255.255.255.240Binary: 11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000Host bits: 4Host addresses: 2^4 - 2 = 16 - 2 = 14This option has fewer host addresses than the requirement, so this is not a valid choice.

Answer: C

Explanation:
This subnet mask will allow you to have six usable IP addresses in each subnet, with a minimum of wasted addresses. You can use the following formula to calculate the number of subnets and the subnet ID for each subnet:
Number of subnets = 2^network bits Subnet ID = (subnet number - 1) x number of host addresses + network address
The network bits are the number of 1s in the binary representation of the subnet mask, and the network address is the first address in the range. For example, if your range is 192.168.1.0/27, then the network bits are 27, the network address is 192.168.1.0, and the number of host addresses is 30. Therefore, the number of subnets is 2^27, and the subnet ID for the first subnet is (1 - 1) x 30 + 192.168.1.0 = 192.168.1.0. The subnet ID for the second subnet is (2 - 1) x 30 + 192.168.1.0 = 192.168.1.32, and so on.
References
✑ Subnet masks are covered in Objective 1.4 of the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 certification exam1.
✑ Subnet masks can be calculated based on binary and CIDR-block notations2.
✑ Subnet masks can be used to determine the number of host bits and host addresses3.
1: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 4 2: IPv4 Subnet Masks – N10- 008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.41 3: Calculating IPv4 Subnets and Hosts – N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.44

NEW QUESTION 13

A network administrator is trying to add network redundancy for the server farm. Which of the following can the network administrator configure to BEST provide this capability?

• A. VRRP
• B. DNS
• C. UPS
• D. RPO

Answer: A

Explanation:
VRRP is an open standard protocol, which is used to provide redundancy in a network. It is a network layer protocol (protocol number-112). The number of routers (group members) in a group acts as a virtual logical router which will be the default gateway of all the local hosts. If one router goes down, one of the other group members can take place for the responsibilities for forwarding the traffic.

NEW QUESTION 14

A network engineer needs to change an entire subnet of SLAAC-configured workstation addresses. Which of the following methods would be the best for the engineer to use?

• A. Change the address prefix in ARP in order for the workstations to retrieve their new addresses.
• B. Change the address prefix in a router in order for the router to advertise the new prefix with an ND.
• C. Change the address prefix scope in a DHCP server in order for the workstations to retrieve their new addresses.
• D. Change the workstations' address prefix manually because an automated method does not exist.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration) is a mechanism that enables each host on the network to auto-configure a unique IPv6 address without any device keeping track of which address is assigned to which node12. SLAAC uses link-local addresses and the interface’s MAC address or a random number to generate the host portion of the IPv6 address2. SLAAC also relies on Router Solicitation (RS) and Router Advertisement (RA) messages to obtain the network prefix and other information from a router12. Therefore, to change an entire subnet of SLAAC-configured workstation addresses, the network engineer needs to change the address prefix in a router and let the router advertise the new prefix with an ND (Neighbor Discovery) message. This way, the workstations will receive the new prefix and update their IPv6 addresses accordingly3.
References1 - IPv6 Stateless Address Auto-configuration (SLAAC) | NetworkAcademy.io2 - IPv6 SLAAC – Stateless Address Autoconfiguration - Study-CCNA3 - Mastering IPv6
SLAAC Concepts and Configuration - Cisco Press

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following documents is MOST likely to be associated with identifying and documenting critical applications?

• A. Software development life-cycle policy
• B. User acceptance testing plan
• C. Change management policy
• D. Business continuity plan

Answer: D

Explanation:
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines the procedures and strategies to ensure the continuity of critical business functions in the event of a disaster or disruption. A BCP is most likely to be associated with identifying and documenting critical applications that are essential for the organization’s operations and recovery. A BCP also defines the roles and responsibilities of the staff, the backup and restore processes, the communication channels, and the testing and maintenance schedules.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.2: Explain disaster recovery and business continuity concepts.

NEW QUESTION 16
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