NEW QUESTION 1

A user reports a weak signal when walking 20ft (61 m) away from the WAP in one direction, but a strong signal when walking 20ft in the opposite direction The technician has reviewed the configuration and confirmed the channel type is correct There is no jitter or latency on the connection Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of the issue?

• A. Antenna type
• B. Power levels
• C. Frequency
• D. Encryption type

Answer: A

Explanation:
The antenna type affects the signal strength and coverage of a WAP. Different types of antennas have different radiation patterns and gain, which determine how far and wide the signal can reach. If the user experiences a weak signal in one direction but a strong signal in the opposite direction, it could mean that the antenna type is not suitable for the desired coverage area. The technician should consider changing the antenna type to one that has a more balanced or directional radiation pattern. References: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-small-business/wap200-poor-signal-strength/td- p/1565796

NEW QUESTION 2

A customer needs six usable IP addresses. Which of the following best meets this requirement?

• A. 255.255.255.128
• B. 255.255.255.192
• C. 255.255.255.224
• D. 255.255.255.240

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3

A technician discovered that some information on the local database server was changed during a tile transfer to a remote server. Which of the following should concern the technician the MOST?

• A. Confidentiality
• B. Integrity
• C. DDoS
• D. On-path attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
The technician should be most concerned about data integrity and security. If information on the local database server was changed during a file transfer to a remote server, it could indicate that unauthorized access or modifications were made to the data. It could also indicate a failure in the file transfer process, which could result in data loss or corruption. The technician should investigate the cause of the changes and take steps to prevent it from happening again in the future. Additionally, they should verify the integrity of the data and restore it from a backup if necessary to ensure that the correct and complete data is available. The technician should also take appropriate actions such as notifying the system administrator and management of the incident, and following the incident management process to minimize the damage caused by the incident.

NEW QUESTION 4

A network technician is responding to an issue with a local company. To which of the following documents should the network technician refer to determine the scope of the issue?

• A. MTTR
• B. MOU
• C. NDA
• D. SLA

Answer: D

Explanation:
SLA stands for Service Level Agreement, and it is a contract that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. SLA can specify the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the penalties for non-compliance and the procedures for resolving issues. SLA can help the network technician determine the scope of the issue by providing the baseline and target values for the service, the escalation process and contacts, and the service credits or remedies for the customer45.
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide - Chapter 15: Network Troubleshooting Methodology35: What is a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? | ITIL | AXELOS

NEW QUESTION 5

An administrator would like to have two servers at different geographical locations provide fault tolerance and high performance while appearing as one URL to users. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

• A. Load balancing
• B. Multipathing
• C. NIC teaming
• D. Warm site

Answer: B

Explanation:
Load balancing is a technique that can be used to provide fault tolerance and high performance while appearing as one URL to users. It is achieved by distributing the workload across multiple servers, which are usually located in different geographical locations. This allows for high performance and fault tolerance, as if one server fails, the other will take its place. Additionally, the multiple servers appear as one URL to the users, eliminating the need for the users to switch between servers.

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following network topologies best describes a central device connected to multiple independent devices?

• A. Mesh
• B. Ring
• C. Hub-and-spoke
• D. Bus

Answer: C

Explanation:
Hub-and-spoke is the network topology that best describes a central device connected to multiple independent devices. A network topology is the physical or logical arrangement of devices and links on a network. A hub-and-spoke topology is a type of star topology, where a central device, such as a switch or a router, acts as a hub that connects to multiple devices, such as computers or printers, that act as spokes. A hub-and-spoke topology can offer advantages such as simplicity, scalability, and reliability, but also disadvantages such as single point of failure, high dependency on the hub, and increased latency. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Hub-and-Spoke Topology: What Is It? (Diagram Included) | SolarWinds MSP

NEW QUESTION 7

To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?

• A. Public
• B. Hybrid
• C. SaaS
• D. Private

Answer: B

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is a combination of on-premise and cloud solutions, where some resources are hosted in-house and some are hosted by a cloud provider. A hybrid cloud model can offer the benefits of both public and private clouds, such as scalability, cost-efficiency, security, and control12. A hybrid cloud model can also reduce the impact for users, as they can access the key services from the on-site data center and the enterprise services from the cloud

NEW QUESTION 8

A network administrator needs to provide remote clients with access to an internal web application. Which of the following methods provides the highest flexibility and compatibility while encrypting only the connection to the web application?

• A. Clientless VPN
• B. Virtual desktop
• C. Virtual network computing
• D. mGRE tunnel

Answer: A

Explanation:
A clientless VPN is a method of providing remote clients with access to an internal web application without installing any additional software or dedicated VPN client on their devices. Instead, users access the VPN through a web browser, utilizing a web portal or gateway provided by the VPN service. This method provides the highest flexibility and compatibility, as it supports various operating systems and devices, and encrypts only the connection to the web application, not the entire traffic of the device.

NEW QUESTION 9

While using a secure conference call connection over a corporate VPN, a user moves from a cellular connection to a hotel wireless network. Although the wireless connection and the VPN show a connected status, no network connectivity is present. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?

• A. MAC filtering is configured on the wireless connection.
• B. The VPN and the WLAN connection have an encryption protocol mismatch.
• C. The WLAN is using a captive portal that requires further authentication.
• D. Wireless client isolation is enforced on the WLAN settings.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that is displayed to newly connected users of a Wi-Fi network before they are granted broader access to network resources. Captive portals are commonly used to present a landing or log-in page which may require authentication, payment, acceptance of an end-user license agreement, acceptable use policy, survey completion, or other valid credentials that both the host and user agree to adhere by123
A possible cause of the issue is that the user has not completed the captive portal authentication process, which prevents the VPN from establishing a secure connection over the Wi-Fi network. The user may need to open a web browser and follow the instructions on the captive portal page to gain full access to the internet.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following is a system that is installed directly on a server's hardware and abstracts the hardware from any guest machines?

• A. Storage array
• B. Type 1 hypervisor
• C. Virtual machine
• D. Guest QS

Answer: B

Explanation:
A type 1 hypervisor is a system that is installed directly on a server’s hardware and abstracts the hardware from any guest machines. A hypervisor is a software layer that enables virtualization by creating and managing virtual machines (VMs) on a physical host. A type 1 hypervisor, also known as a bare-metal hypervisor or a native hypervisor, runs directly on the host’s hardware without requiring an underlying operating system (OS). It provides better performance and security than a type 2 hypervisor, which runs on top of an existing OS and relies on it for hardware access. References: https://www.vmware.com/topics/glossary/content/hypervisor

NEW QUESTION 11

During a recent security audit, a contracted penetration tester discovered the organization uses a number of insecure protocols. Which of the following ports should be disallowed so only encrypted protocols are allowed? (Select TWO).

• A. 22
• B. 23
• C. 69
• D. 443
• E. 587
• F. 8080

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 12

A user took a laptop on a trip and made changes to the network parameters while at the airport. The user can access all internet websites but not corporate intranet websites. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?

• A. Duplicate IP address
• B. Duplicate SSID
• C. Incorrect DNS
• D. Incorrect subnet mask

Answer: C

Explanation:
DNS (Domain Name System) is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Corporate intranet websites are usually hosted on private IP addresses that are not accessible from the public internet. Therefore, the user’s laptop needs to use the correct DNS server that can resolve the intranet domain names to the private IP addresses. If the user changed the network parameters at the airport and did not revert them back, the laptop might be using a public DNS server that does not have the records for the intranet websites. This would cause the user to access all internet websites but not corporate intranet websites.
References:
✑ An Overview of DNS - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.61
✑ DNS Configuration – CompTIA A+ 220-11012
✑ CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 53

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following does OSPF use to communicate routing updates?

• A. Unicast
• B. Anycast
• C. Multicast
• D. Broadcast

Answer: C

Explanation:
OSPF uses multicast to communicate routing updates among routers within the same area. OSPF routers send and receive link-state advertisements (LSAs) using IP multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 (all OSPF routers) and 224.0.0.6 (all OSPF designated routers) 1. Multicast allows OSPF to send routing updates efficiently and selectively, without flooding the entire network or requiring acknowledgments from every router

NEW QUESTION 14

A network technician is configuring a wireless network that consists of multiple APS for better coverage and allows roaming between the APS. Which of the following types of SSIDs should the technician configure?

• A. Basic Service Set
• B. Independent Basic Service Set
• C. Extended Service Set
• D. Distribution System Service

Answer: C

Explanation:

An extended service set (ESS) is a type of SSID that allows multiple access points (APs) to share the same SSID and provide seamless roaming for wireless clients. An ESS consists of two or more basic service sets (BSSs), which are individual APs with their own SSIDs. A distribution system (DS), such as a wired Ethernet LAN, connects the BSSs and enables data transfer between them. A wireless client can associate with any AP in the ESS and move from one BSS to another without losing connectivity or reauthenticating.
References:
✑ CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 51
✑ CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Wireless Networking, page 12

NEW QUESTION 15

A technician is monitoring a network interface and notices the device is dropping packets. The cable and interfaces, however, are in working order. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

• A. OID duplication
• B. MIB mismatch
• C. CPU usage
• D. Encapsulation errors

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16
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