NEW QUESTION 1
A stakeholder raises a concern with a project manager because of the number of emails that have been received before a coding release. Which of the following actions should the project manager take next?

• A. Inform the CCB to stop communication.
• B. Establish a RACI matrix.
• C. Escalate the communication issues.
• D. Revise the communication plan.

Answer: D

Explanation:
When stakeholders express concerns about the volume of communication, it’s important to review and adjust the communication plan to ensure it meets the project’s needs and stakeholders’ preferences. A RACI matrix is useful for defining roles and responsibilities but does not address communication frequency or methods directly. Escalating the issue may not be necessary if it can be resolved by revising the plan. Informing the CCB (Change Control Board) to stop communication is not advisable as the CCB’s role is to oversee changes, not to manage day-to-day communications. References
= The CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide provides detailed information on managing the project life cycle, establishing communication plans, and handling stakeholder concerns1.

NEW QUESTION 2
A project team member wrote a user guide over the past ten days. Given the following scatter diagram.

Which erf the following can be formally conducted?

• A. The team member prioritized other tasks over the completion of this task
• B. The learn member had performance issues over time.
• C. There is a negative correlation with 6me and output
• D. This is a display of units of outstanding work to predict completion

Answer: C

Explanation:
The scatter diagram shows a clear negative correlation between time (days) and output (pages), meaning as time progresses, the number of pages completed decreases. This is evident from the downward trend of the plotted points on the graph. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Execution, page 130; CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0: Project Execution, Objective 3.3: Analyze project performance by using appropriate tools and techniques, Sub-objective 3.3.2: Given a scenario, interpret the results of data analysis using appropriate tools and techniques, Knowledge of: Scatter diagrams.

NEW QUESTION 3
During a status meeting for a multisystem program, a program manager learns that some deliverables from another project are delayed. Which of the following should the program manager do next?

• A. Obtain details from the owner of the project.
• B. Update the critical path for the project.
• C. Apply contingency reserves.
• D. Reestimate epic user stories.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The program manager should first obtain details from the owner of the project that is causing the delay, such as the root cause, the impact, the mitigation plan, and the revised timeline. This will help the program manager to assess the situation, communicate with the stakeholders, and adjust the program schedule accordingly. Updating the critical path, applying contingency reserves, and reestimating epic user stories are possible actions that the program manager may take after obtaining the details, depending on the severity and duration of the delay. However, they are not the immediate next steps, as they require more information and analysis. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, Third Edition, Chapter 10: Executing the Project, page 2431; Dealing with delays - Project Management Institute2

NEW QUESTION 4
Someone claiming to be from a tax agency sent an email to a team member asking for access to the project repository. Which of the following BEST describes this scenario?

• A. Social engineering
• B. Phishing
• C. Spoofing
• D. Hacking

Answer: B

Explanation:
Phishing is a scenario where someone claiming to be from a legitimate organization sends an email or other message to a target person asking for sensitive information or access to a system or account. Phishing is a type of cyberattack that aims to trick the target into revealing personal or financial data or installing malware on their device. Phishing can compromise the security and privacy of the target and expose them to identity theft, fraud, or other malicious activities.

NEW QUESTION 5
Project stakeholders have asked the team to use Scrum to run a software implementation project. Which of the following is most likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony?

• A. Reviewing project blockers
• B. Defining roles and responsibilities
• C. Establishing a project schedule
• D. Determining a project budget

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to Four agile ceremonies, demystified, one of the Scrum ceremonies is the daily stand-up, which is a short meeting to discuss progress and identify blockers. Blockers are any issues or impediments that prevent the team from completing their tasks or achieving their goals. Reviewing project blockers during the daily stand-up helps the team to resolve them quickly, collaborate effectively, and stay on track1. The other options are not likely to take place during a Scrum ceremony, as they are either part of the initial project planning or outside the scope of Scrum.

NEW QUESTION 6
Given the following network diagram:

Which of the following is the critical path?

• A. A-C-G-K-M
• B. A-B-D-l-L-M
• C. A-B-E-J-L-M
• D. A-B-F-L-M

Answer: A

Explanation:
The critical path is the sequence of tasks that determines the minimum project duration. It is the longest path through the network diagram and has the least amount of slack or float. Based on the provided network diagram, the critical path is A-C-G-K-M, which has the longest total duration when adding up the individual task durations. References = The concept of the critical path is covered in the CompTIA
Project+ Certification Study Guide1. For more detailed information on how to calculate and identify the critical path in project management, you can refer to the study guide and other project management resources2.

NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following pieces of data are examples of Pll?

• A. Medical record and test result values
• B. IP address and email address
• C. Name and year of birth
• D. X-ray and blood type

Answer: B

Explanation:
Pll stands for personally identifiable information, which is any data that can be used to identify a specific individual. Examples of Pll include name, address, phone number, email address, social security number, passport number, driver’s license number, etc. IP address and email address are both Pll because they can be used to trace the identity and location of a person. Medical record and test result values, name and year of birth, and x-ray and blood type are not Pll by themselves, but they can become Pll if they are combined with other data that can link them to a specific individual. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Security, page 331. CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4: Project Security, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, apply security best practices to a project, Sub-objective: Identify and classify Pll.

NEW QUESTION 8
A project manager is receiving reports of the actual project expenditures and, based on this information, is making adjustments to the budget. In which of the following phases does this occur?

• A. Planning
• B. Closure
• C. Initiation
• D. Execution

Answer: D

Explanation:
The execution phase is when the project manager and the team execute the project plan, deliver the project outputs, and monitor and control the project performance. This includes tracking and managing the project budget, scope, schedule, quality, and risks. Making adjustments to the budget based on the actual project expenditures is part of the monitoring and controlling process in the execution phase. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Executing and Closing Projects, p. 263.

NEW QUESTION 9
A project team gathers weekly to review its progress. Which of the following is the project manager MOST likely to have prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments?

• A. Status report
• B. Project plan
• C. Change log
• D. Meeting minutes

Answer: D

Explanation:
Meeting minutes should be prepared to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes document what was discussed, decisions made, and assignments given during a meeting, providing a record of the team's progress and ensuring absent members are up-to-date. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.2.2
The project manager should prepare meeting minutes to ensure team members who are absent remain informed about assignments. Meeting minutes are a written record of what was discussed and decided in a meeting. They usually include information such as attendees, agenda items, action items, decisions made, issues raised, and deadlines assigned. Meeting minutes can help to communicate important information to team members who could not attend the meeting and provide a reference for future follow-up.

NEW QUESTION 10
In order to complete a major project deliverable, very specialized resources are required for some tasks. The PM failed to take into consideration during planning that the required resources would be available for fewer hours than required. Which of the following should the PM do first to make schedule changes?

• A. Add a new risk.
• B. Perform an impact analysis.
• C. Escalate to the sponsor.
• D. Raise a change request.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to A Guide To Schedule Updating in Project Management, one of the best practices for effective schedule updating is to perform an impact analysis before making any changes to the schedule. An impact analysis helps the project manager to assess the effects of the change on the project scope, cost, quality, risk, and stakeholder expectations. It also helps to identify the best options for resolving the issue and minimizing the negative impacts. By performing an impact analysis first, the project manager can make informed decisions and communicate them clearly to the project team and stakeholders.

NEW QUESTION 11
A financial manager reports that several employees' allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Which of the following could MOST likely be the cause of this issue?

• A. A project manager assigned the wrong resources.
• B. A project manager did not release the resources
• C. A project manager did not remove the system access.
• D. A project manager did not provide the project sign-off.

Answer: B

Explanation:
A project manager did not release the resources. A project manager not releasing the resources could most likely be the cause of this issue where several employees’ allocations from the past month appear to be 200% even though they are only assigned to a particular project. Releasing resources is a process of freeing up or reallocating any human or material resources that were used for a project after its completion or closure. Releasing resources can help to update the resource availability and utilization records and avoid any conflicts or errors in resource allocation or reporting.

NEW QUESTION 12
A project manager does not have the power to reward team members when they accomplish something or penalize them when they fail to perform well. As a result, the project manager is having issues with team members. Which of the following describes this organizational structure?

• A. Flat
• B. Projectized
• C. Weak matrix
• D. Functional

Answer: C

Explanation:
A weak matrix organizational structure is one where the project manager has low authority and the functional manager has high authority. The project manager is considered to be a coordinator or an escalator, and the team members are primarily loyal to their functional units. This can cause issues with team motivation, communication, and performance1

NEW QUESTION 13
A project was closed according to the planned project schedule. Security teams later identified that one of the contractors stole data after the project's closure. Which of the following would have most likely prevented the data from being stolen?

• A. Removing access
• B. Closing contracts
• C. Project sign-off
• D. Project evaluation

Answer: A

Explanation:
Removing access means revoking the contractor’s permissions to access the project data, systems, and devices after the project is closed. This is a crucial security measure to prevent unauthorized access, misuse, or theft of sensitive data by external parties. Closing contracts, project sign-off, and project evaluation are important steps in the project closure process, but they do not necessarily prevent data theft by themselves. They may involve formal agreements, documentation, and feedback, but they do not address the technical aspects of data security. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, Third Edition, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 3771; 9 Ways to Prevent Third-Party Data Breaches in 20232; 3 Ways to Prevent Data Theft by Contractors3

NEW QUESTION 14
A project team participates in a brainstorming session to define the guidance, direction, and approach for monitoring established procedures for developed products. Which of the following plans is the team creating?

• A. Project transition
• B. Project management
• C. Project communications
• D. Project quality assurance

Answer: D

Explanation:
Project quality assurance is the process of ensuring that the project meets the quality standards and requirements defined by the stakeholders and the organization. It involves planning, implementing, and monitoring quality activities throughout the project life cycle. Project quality assurance is different from project quality control, which is the process of inspecting and testing the project deliverables and outputs to identify and correct defects. Project quality assurance is also different from project transition, which is the process of transferring the project deliverables and outputs to the end users or customers. Project management is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project objectives. Project communications is the process of planning, creating, distributing, and managing information among the project stakeholders. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Quality Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Quality Management2

NEW QUESTION 15
A project coordinator has started a new project and is reviewing the following characteristics provided by the customer:
• Two developers
• High uncertainty about existing systems
• Risk of frequent requirement changes
• Tight deadlines
Which of the following project methodologies would be best to use in this situation?

• A. PRINCE2
• B. Scrum
• C. SAFe
• D. XP

Answer: B

Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of choosing a project management methodology that suits the project characteristics and environment12. Scrum is an agile framework that is designed to handle complex and uncertain projects with frequent changes and tight deadlines34. Scrum involves a small, cross-functional team that works in short iterations called sprints, delivering incremental and potentially shippable products at the end of each sprint5. Scrum also allows for continuous feedback and improvement through daily stand-up meetings, sprint reviews, and retrospectives6. Scrum is suitable for this project because it can accommodate the high uncertainty, the risk of requirement changes, and the tight deadlines, while also enabling the two developers to collaborate effectively and deliver value to the customer. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide7, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives8, Project Management Methodologies Comparison (11 PM Methods)6, Project Management Methodologies: 12 Best Frameworks [2023]7, What is Scrum?5, Scrum Methodology: The Ultimate Guide6

NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following aspects are true of agile as compared to waterfall? (Select two).

• A. Agile works through larger integrated teams.
• B. Agile promotes project manager ownership over deliverables.
• C. Agile reinforces the importance of comprehensive documentation.
• D. Agile has more customer involvement throughout development.
• E. Agile is more flexible to allow for changes in scope.
• F. Agile is comprised of well-defined phases.

Answer: DE

Explanation:
Agile is a project management methodology that emphasizes customer collaboration, feedback, and adaptation throughout the project life cycle. Agile teams work in short iterations, called sprints, and deliver working increments of the product or service to the customer for review and approval. Agile teams can also respond to changing requirements and priorities by adjusting the scope, schedule, or quality of the project12. Waterfall, on the other hand, is a project management methodology that follows a linear and sequential process, where each phase of the project must be completed before moving on to the next one. Waterfall teams work with a fixed scope, schedule, and quality, and deliver the final product or service to the customer at the end of the project. Waterfall teams have less customer involvement and flexibility during the project development34.

NEW QUESTION 17
A PM learns about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members. Which of the following should the PM do NEXT?

• A. Escalate the communication issues.
• B. Implement a communication platform.
• C. Review the communication plan.
• D. Talk with the head of the PMO.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The project manager should review the communication plan after learning about some communication issues with different stakeholders and team members. A communication plan is a document that defines and documents the communication goals, strategies, methods, channels, frequency, roles, and responsibilities for a project. A communication plan can help to facilitate effective and timely communication among all stakeholders involved in a project and avoid confusion, misunderstanding, or conflicts.

NEW QUESTION 18
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