NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following offers administrators more direct control over operating systems?

• A. Infrastructure as a service
• B. Software as a service
• C. Functions as a service
• D. Platform as a service

Answer: A

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) offers administrators more direct control over operating systems than other cloud service models. IaaS is a type of cloud computing service that provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS allows users to rent or lease infrastructure resources on demand and pay only for what they use. IaaS gives users more flexibility and control over their infrastructure resources and enables them to configure, manage, and customize their operating systems according to their needs and preferences3

NEW QUESTION 2
A project manager is eager to define access requirements during the initiation phase of a project. Which of the following steps should the project manager perform first?

• A. Define the WBS.
• B. Develop a RAM.
• C. Manage the vendors.
• D. Assess the resource pool.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This answer is based on the best practice of defining access requirements in project management, which is to identify the roles, responsibilities, and permissions of the project team members and other stakeholders who need to access the project information, resources, and deliverables12. The first step in this process is to assess the resource pool, which is the availability and capability of the human resources that can be assigned to the project34. By assessing the resource pool, the project manager can determine the skills, experience, and security clearance of the potential project team members, as well as their reporting relationships, communication preferences, and expectations56. This information can help the project manager to define the access requirements for each role and stakeholder group, and to assign the appropriate level of access to the project data, documents, tools, and systems78. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide9, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives10, What is Requirements Management?, How to Write Project Requirements, A Guide to Functional Requirements, Project Requirements Management: A Quick Guide, Creating clear project requirements, How to Define Project Roles and Responsibilities

NEW QUESTION 3
While managing a project, a PM is assigned to work on a second project. The second project becomes more complex and monopolizes the PM's time. The PM learns that a similarly time-consuming project was executed previously in the organization. Which of the following actions should the PM take?

• A. Perform a root cause analysis.
• B. Organize a stakeholder meeting
• C. Escalate the issue to the CCB
• D. Contact the PMO for assistance.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The project manager should contact the project management office (PMO) for assistance after learning that a similarly time-consuming project was executed previously in the organization. A PMO is a department or group within an organization that provides centralized guidance, governance, standards, best practices, resources, and oversight for project management activities. A PMO can help the project manager by providing access to historical data, lessons learned, templates, tools, methodologies, and expertise from previous projects that can be useful for planning and executing the current project.

NEW QUESTION 4
A project manager is leading the implementation of a new service for a well-known, global company for which brand image is most important. The project will rely on contracted services. As part of the request for proposal process, the project team has identified a short list of vendors to submit proposals. Which of the following items should the project team consider as a primary factor to remove a vendor from consideration?

• A. The vendor's proposed schedule does not align with the desired schedule.
• B. The vendor is new and not well established in the market.
• C. The vendor has been linked to ESG concerns within the past month
• D. The vendor's quote was the highest of all the proposals.

Answer: C

Explanation:
ESG stands for environmental, social, and governance, and it refers to the criteria that measure the sustainability and ethical impact of an organization. ESG concerns can affect the reputation, performance, and value of a company, as well as its stakeholders and customers. For a well-known, global company that values its brand image, hiring a vendor that has been linked to ESG concerns can be a major risk and a source of negative publicity. Therefore, the project team should consider this as a primary factor to remove a vendor from consideration12.

NEW QUESTION 5
The high-level technical requirements for a new application state that the application should be suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Which of the following meets these requirements?

• A. Data warehouse
• B. SQL database
• C. Multitier architecture
• D. Content management system

Answer: C

Explanation:
Multitier architecture is a type of software architecture that is suitable to support enterprise-level client-server solutions. Multitier architecture divides an application into logical layers or tiers that are distributed among different servers or machines. Each tier performs a specific function or role and communicates with other tiers through well- defined interfaces. Multitier architecture can provide benefits such as scalability, performance, security, maintainability, and reusability for complex and large-scale applications.

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following is a consideration when determining a project's ESG factors?

• A. Project management methodology
• B. IT infrastructure security
• C. Proper accounting practices
• D. Corporate values compliance

Answer: D

Explanation:
Corporate values compliance is a consideration when determining a project’s ESG factors, because it reflects how a project aligns with the ethical standards and social responsibility of the organization. Corporate values compliance can help to enhance the reputation, trust, and loyalty of the organization among its stakeholders, as well as to avoid legal or regulatory issues that may arise from violating the values. Corporate values compliance can also influence the project scope, objectives, deliverables, and stakeholders, as well as the project management methodology, processes, and practices. The other options are not directly related to ESG factors. Project management methodology is the approach or framework that guides how a project is planned, executed, monitored, and controlled. IT infrastructure security is the protection of the hardware, software, network, and data components of a project from unauthorized access, use, modification, or destruction. Proper accounting practices are the rules and standards that govern how financial transactions and statements are recorded, reported, and audited for a project. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition,
Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; What Is Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) Investing

NEW QUESTION 7
After determining the appropriate maintenance window, which of the following should occur NEXT in the operational infrastructure change process?

• A. Implement the change.
• B. Approve the test plan.
• C. Notify customers.
• D. Develop a rollback plan.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The project manager should develop a rollback plan next after determining the appropriate maintenance window in the operational infrastructure change process. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes how to revert to the previous state of the system or infrastructure in case of a failure or disruption during the change implementation. A rollback plan can help to minimize the impact and risk of the change and ensure business continuity and stability.

NEW QUESTION 8
In the initiation phase, a PM is reviewing the objectives, the high-level requirements, the success criteria, and the budget resources. Which of the following action items will benefit from this analysis?

• A. Developing a RACI
• B. Identifying and assessing stakeholders
• C. Assigning project resources
• D. Establishing communication channels

Answer: B

Explanation:
Identifying and assessing stakeholders is an action item that will benefit from the analysis of the objectives, the high-level requirements, the success criteria, and the budget resources in the initiation phase. By reviewing these elements, the PM can determine who are the key individuals or groups that have an interest or influence in the project, what are their expectations and needs, and how to engage them effectively throughout the project life cycle12.

NEW QUESTION 9
A global franchise requests that a company provide a solution to unify its operation worldwide. Additionally, the company would like the solution to provide operation reports in real time without asking the country franchise manager for these reports. Which of the following cloud models would the company suggest to the global franchise?

• A. laaS
• B. XaaS
• C. PaaS
• D. SaaS

Answer: D

Explanation:
SaaS, or software as a service, is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud-hosted application software. SaaS is the best solution for the global franchise, because it can unify its operation worldwide by using the same software platform across different locations and devices. Additionally, SaaS can provide operation reports in real time without asking the country franchise manager for these reports, because the cloud service provider manages the data collection, analysis, and presentation in the cloud. SaaS also offers the benefits of scalability, reliability, security, and cost- effectiveness for the global franchise.
SaaS is different from IaaS, or infrastructure as a service, which provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted computing infrastructure, such as servers, storage, and networking. IaaS is not suitable for the global franchise, because it requires the franchise to manage and maintain its own software applications and data on the cloud infrastructure. IaaS also does not provide operation reports in real time, unless the franchise develops its own reporting tools and processes. SaaS is also different from XaaS, or anything as a service, which is a generic term that encompasses various types of cloud services, such as IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, and others. XaaS is not a specific cloud model that the company can suggest to the global franchise, but rather a broad category of cloud offerings. SaaS is also different from PaaS, or platform as a service, which provides on-demand access to a complete, ready-to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining, and managing applications. PaaS is not ideal for the global franchise, because it requires the franchise to develop and deploy its own software applications on the cloud platform, which may be more complex and time-consuming than using a ready-made SaaS solution. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; IaaS vs. PaaS vs. SaaS3

NEW QUESTION 10
A company needs to have structured cabling installed in one of its buildings. Which of the following would be the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors?

• A. RFB
• B. RFQ
• C. RF
• D. RFP

Answer: D

Explanation:
An RFP (request for proposal) is a document that solicits proposals from potential vendors for a specific project or service. An RFP typically describes the project scope, requirements, evaluation criteria, and instructions for submitting proposals. An RFP is the best document for the company to use to obtain and compare information on cabling services and costs from various vendors, as it allows the company to evaluate the vendors’ qualifications, experience, approach, and pricing12.

NEW QUESTION 11
A project manager receives an escalation from an external group reporting that an expected deliverable should have been available some time ago. After analysis, the project team realizes the deliverable was provided on time. Which of the following should the project manager do next?

• A. Request a change control ticket.
• B. Review the schedule plan.
• C. Refine the project documentation.
• D. Revise the communication plan.

Answer: D

Explanation:
When a project manager receives an escalation about a deliverable that was actually provided on time, it indicates a communication issue. The next step should be to revise the communication plan to ensure that all stakeholders are properly informed about project progress and deliverables in the future. This helps to prevent misunderstandings and ensures that everyone has the correct information.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)

NEW QUESTION 12
A meeting agenda included the following items:
. Review the goals of the project.
. Review the progress of the project.
. Discuss if the project is ready to move forward.
Which of the following best describes this type of meeting?

• A. Stand-up
• B. Monthly status
• C. Gap analysis
• D. Gate review

Answer: D

Explanation:
A gate review is a type of meeting that evaluates the completion and quality of a project stage and decides whether the project can proceed to the next stage. A gate review is a formal governance step that involves reviewing the goals, progress, risks, deliverables, and benefits of the project, and discussing if the project is still aligned with the business strategy and stakeholder expectations. A gate review can have different outcomes, such as go, kill, hold, recycle, or conditional go, depending on the assessment of the project status and viability123. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 9: Project Change Management, p. 323; Everything Project Managers Need To Know About Gate Reviews | monday.com Blog; Gate reviews: What to do and why you need them - Rebel’s Guide to Project Management; Gates and How to Operate Them - GenSight

NEW QUESTION 13
After a release, the project sponsor received an escalation from an executive about the
extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Which of the following should be added to the issue log?

• A. Continuous integration
• B. Rollback plan
• C. Customer notification
• D. Automated testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
Customer notification should be added to the issue log after receiving an escalation from an executive about the extension of the downtime after the scheduled window. Customer notification is a communication activity that informs the customers about any issues or changes that may affect their satisfaction or expectations. Customer notification can help to maintain trust, transparency, and goodwill with the customers and prevent any negative impacts on their business operations or experience.

NEW QUESTION 14
Defects associated with project deliverables have been reported. The project team needs to find the cause of the defects. Which of the following tools should the project team use to find the cause?

• A. Kanban board
• B. Pareto chart
• C. Ishikawa diagram
• D. Decision tree

Answer: C

Explanation:
An Ishikawa diagram is a tool that the project team should use to find the cause of the defects associated with project deliverables. An Ishikawa diagram, also known as a fishbone diagram or a cause-and-effect diagram, is a graphical tool that shows the possible causes of a problem or effect using a fishbone-like structure. An Ishikawa diagram can help to identify and analyze the root causes of defects or issues and find solutions to prevent or eliminate them.

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following PRINCE2 processes includes creating the project plan?

• A. Starting up a project
• B. Initiating a project
• C. Managing product delivery
• D. Directing a project

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available.
The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; PRINCE2 Processes - 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process – This process is the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4

NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following can a project manager infer from the following velocity chart?

• A. The project is on schedule.
• B. The project Is ahead of schedule.
• C. The project is behind schedule.
• D. The project is at risk.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The velocity chart typically shows the amount of work completed over time. If the “Actual Effort” line is below the “Planned Timeline,” it indicates that the project is not progressing as fast as planned, hence it is behind schedule. This is inferred by comparing the actual work completed against what was scheduled.
References = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical interpretation of velocity charts in project management. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.

NEW QUESTION 17
Two team members have a minor disagreement on how a task should be performed. The project manager plans to meet with the team members to discuss the matter. Which of the following techniques should the project manager use to emphasize the areas of agreement and downplay the opposing views?

• A. Compromising
• B. Forcing
• C. Smoothing
• D. Collaborating

Answer: C

Explanation:
Smoothing is a conflict resolution technique that involves emphasizing the areas of agreement and minimizing the areas of difference. It is useful when the conflict is minor and the relationship between the parties is more important than the issue. Smoothing can help maintain harmony and avoid further escalation of the conflict1.

NEW QUESTION 18
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