NEW QUESTION 1
An software engineer is applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment. Which of the following risk strategies best describes this practice?

• A. Transfer
• B. Mitigate
• C. Avoid
• D. Accept

Answer: B

Explanation:
Mitigate is a risk strategy that involves taking actions to reduce the probability or impact of a risk. By applying new updates to a program in a sandbox environment, the software engineer is testing the changes before implementing them in the actual system, thus minimizing the chance of errors or failures that could affect the project1.

NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following cloud models is designed to provide compute, storage, and networking resources on demand?

• A. Software as a service
• B. Infrastructure as a service
• C. Data as a service
• D. Platform as a service

Answer: B

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking resources. IaaS customers can provision, configure, and use these resources as they would use on- premises hardware, but without the hassle of purchasing, installing, managing, and maintaining them. The cloud service provider owns, manages, and maintains the hardware and computing resources in its own data centers, and charges the customers based on their usage. IaaS is suitable for customers who need flexibility, scalability, and control over their IT infrastructure, and who want to avoid the high costs and complexity of owning and operating their own hardware. The other options are not correct because:
✑ Software as a service (SaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to ready-to-use, cloud-hosted application software. SaaS customers do not need to install, update, or maintain the software, as the cloud service provider handles all the technical aspects. SaaS is suitable for customers who need to access common applications, such as email, office productivity, or customer relationship management, without worrying about the underlying infrastructure or platform.
✑ Data as a service (DaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to cloud-hosted data sources, such as databases, data warehouses, or data lakes. DaaS customers can query, analyze, and visualize the data, as well as integrate it with other applications or services, using APIs or web interfaces. DaaS is suitable for customers who need to leverage data from various sources, such as social media, IoT devices, or third-party providers, without having to store, manage, or process the data themselves.
✑ Platform as a service (PaaS) is a cloud model that provides on-demand access to a complete, ready-to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining, and managing applications. PaaS customers can use the platform’s tools, frameworks, libraries, and services to create and deploy applications, without having to worry about the underlying infrastructure or software. PaaS is suitable for customers who need to develop, test, and deploy applications quickly and efficiently, and who want to take advantage of the cloud’s scalability, reliability, and security features. References = IaaS vs. PaaS vs. SaaS; AWS Fundamentals: Understanding Compute, Storage, Database, Networking & Security; What are the different types of cloud computing?; What is Cloud Storage and How to Use It

NEW QUESTION 3
A project manager has been assigned to a new project. During the planning phase, the project manager needs to get an understanding of the purpose of the project. Which of the following should the project manager do?

• A. Collate the lessons learned.
• B. Perform a gap analysis.
• C. Review existing artifacts.
• D. Conduct a retrospective.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The project manager should review existing artifacts to get an understanding of the purpose of the project. Existing artifacts are documents or records that provide information about the project background, context, scope, objectives, requirements, stakeholders, and deliverables. They may include documents such as project proposal, project charter, business case, feasibility study, statement of work (SOW), or contract. Reviewing existing artifacts can help to clarify the project vision and expectations and provide a basis for planning and executing the project.

NEW QUESTION 4
For an upcoming project kickoff. a PM is looking for a way to illustrate roles for major project activities. Which of the following would be the MOST useful option?

• A. Resource plan
• B. Organizational chart
• C. Project charter
• D. RACI chart

Answer: D

Explanation:
A RACI chart would be the most useful option for the project manager to illustrate roles for major project activities for an upcoming project kickoff. A RACI chart is a visual representation of a RACI matrix that shows who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task or activity in a project using a table format. A RACI chart can help to communicate and document the roles and expectations of each team member and stakeholder for the project and ensure alignment and agreement.

NEW QUESTION 5
During a stand-up meeting, a team member asks to include a change that an important stakeholder requested in the project board. This request is denied, and the team member has to go back to what was originally planned for the sprint. Which of the following individuals should the stakeholder have asked to request the change instead of the team member?

• A. Architect
• B. Project sponsor
• C. Scrum master
• D. Product owner

Answer: D

Explanation:
The product owner is the person who is responsible for managing the product backlog, which includes adding, removing, or changing items based on stakeholder feedback and business value. The product owner is also the one who can collaborate with the development team and the scrum master to decide if a change can be accommodated in the current sprint or deferred to a future sprint. Therefore, the stakeholder should have asked the product owner to request the change instead of the team member, who is not authorized to make changes to the sprint backlog12.

NEW QUESTION 6
A PM is working with stakeholders in the discovery phase and comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete. The output of this exercise will produce the:

• A. ROI.
• B. SOW.
• C. RFI.
• D. RPR

Answer: A

Explanation:
The output of this exercise where the project manager is comparing the cost of the project to the cost savings the project will produce when it is complete will produce the return on investment (ROI). ROI is a financial metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns to its costs. ROI can help to evaluate the value or worth of a project and support decision making and prioritization. ROI is calculated by dividing the net benefits (benefits minus costs) by the total costs and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage.

NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint?

• A. Evaluating the project
• B. Releasing the resources
• C. Closing the contracts
• D. Reconciling the budget

Answer: A

Explanation:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.4.4

NEW QUESTION 8
The project team determines that software installation can only begin after the desktops have been installed and can be powered on. Which of the following dependencies does this represent?

• A. External
• B. Internal
• C. Mandatory
• D. Discretionary

Answer: C

Explanation:
The dependency between software installation and desktop installation is a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of dependency that is inherent in the nature or logic of the work and cannot be avoided or changed. It is also known as a hard dependency or a hard logic dependency. A mandatory dependency means that one task must be completed before another task can start or finish. For example, software installation can only start after desktop installation is finished5
The dependency between desktop installation and software installation represents a mandatory dependency. A mandatory dependency is a type of task dependency that is inherent in the nature of the work being performed. In this case, software installation cannot begin until desktops are installed and powered on, and therefore, the dependency is mandatory. References: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Integration Management, Objective 3.1: Identify the project management processes and the interactions between them.

NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following tools is best to use when conducting project meetings across time zones?

• A. Text
• B. Calendaring tools
• C. Videoconference
• D. Email

Answer: C

Explanation:
Videoconference is the best tool to use when conducting project meetings across time zones, as it allows real-time communication, visual cues, screen sharing, and collaboration among the participants. Videoconference can also help build rapport and trust among the team members, and reduce the risk of misunderstandings or miscommunication. Videoconference tools such as Zoom, Skype, or Google Meet can also accommodate different time zones by showing the local time of each participant and allowing them to schedule meetings in advance12.

NEW QUESTION 10
A risk management team for a software project decided to outsource the development of a specific portion of a system due to a lack of internal resources. Which of the following risk responses does this demonstrate?

• A. Avoid
• B. Transfer
• C. Accept
• D. Share

Answer: B

Explanation:
Outsourcing the development of a system component due to a lack of internal resources is a risk response strategy known as ‘transfer.’ This approach shifts the risk to a third party who will now be responsible for managing that portion of the project. It is commonly used when an organization does not have the expertise or capacity to handle specific risks internally.
References = The answer is based on standard project management practices and the typical use of risk response strategies in the field. For detailed information, please refer to the CompTIA Project+ Study Guide and other official CompTIA resources.

NEW QUESTION 11
During a brainstorming meeting, a project manager identifies multiple techniques that will help the project team ensure confidence and alignment with the project scope and goals. Which of the following plans is the project manager creating?

• A. Procurement
• B. Communication
• C. Quality assurance
• D. Risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
The project manager is creating a quality assurance plan when identifying multiple techniques that will help the project team ensure confidence and alignment with the project scope and goals during a brainstorming meeting. A quality assurance plan is a plan that defines and documents the standards, criteria, methods, activities, and tools for ensuring and verifying that the quality requirements and expectations of a project are met. A quality assurance plan can help to improve the quality of the project processes and deliverables and prevent or reduce defects or errors.

NEW QUESTION 12
A PM wants to add a chart to the monthly status report to show major accomplishments for key events. Which of the following is the best chart to use?

• A. Milestone
• B. Gantt
• C. Burndown
• D. PERT

Answer: A

Explanation:
A milestone chart is the best chart to use to show major accomplishments for key events, because it displays the important deliverables or outcomes of a project along a timeline12. A milestone chart can provide a high-level overview of the project progress and achievements, without showing the details of each task or activity34. A milestone chart can also help communicate the project status and expectations to the stakeholders, and identify any potential risks or delays that may affect the project completion56. References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide7, CompTIA Project+ Certification Exam Objectives8, What is a Milestone Chart?1, How to Create a Milestone Chart in Excel in 3 Steps2, Milestone Chart: The Easiest Way to Track Project Milestones3, How to Use
Milestones in Project Management4

NEW QUESTION 13
A project is moving into the user acceptance testing phase. Several resources will be needed to execute different steps in the testing plan. Which of the following would be the best tool to allow the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed?

• A. Ticketing system
• B. Videoconference
• C. Simple messaging system
• D. Corporate social media

Answer: A

Explanation:
A ticketing system is a tool that allows the project manager to assign, track, and manage tasks for the testing phase. A ticketing system can help the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because they can receive notifications, updates, and feedback on their tickets through email or other channels. A ticketing system can also help the project manager to monitor the progress, quality, and issues of the testing phase, and to generate reports and metrics. A ticketing system is different from a videoconference, which is a tool that allows the project team to communicate and collaborate in real time through audio and video. A videoconference is not suitable for allowing the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because it requires their active participation and attention. A ticketing system is also different from a simple messaging system, which is a tool that allows the project team to exchange text messages and files. A simple messaging system is not effective for assigning, tracking, and managing tasks for the testing phase, because it lacks the features and functions of a ticketing system, such as prioritization, categorization, status, and history. A ticketing system is also different from a corporate social media, which is a tool that allows the project team to share information and ideas through online platforms. A corporate social media is not appropriate for allowing the resources to remain at their desks and only react when needed, because it may not be secure, reliable, or professional for the testing phase. References = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Execution1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Execution2; The 15 best collaboration tools for productive teams3

NEW QUESTION 14
Which of the following activities would be performed during the project closure phase when the waterfall methodology is being used? (Select two).

• A. Creating a backlog
• B. Managing the quality of deliverables
• C. Updating the issue log
• D. Performing a risk assessment
• E. Validating the deliverables
• F. Reconciling the project budget

Answer: EF

Explanation:
During the project closure phase in the waterfall methodology, it is crucial to validate the deliverables to ensure that all project requirements have been met and the project outputs are complete and satisfactory. Additionally, reconciling the project budget is performed to ensure all financial records are accurate and reflect the actual project costs, which is essential for the formal closing of the project.
References = CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide (PK0-005)

NEW QUESTION 15
Which of the following software programs would be best to use to store information related to business transactions?

• A. Record management system
• B. Customer relationship management
• C. Enterprise resource planning
• D. Content management system

Answer: C

Explanation:
Enterprise resource planning (ERP) software is a type of software that integrates various business functions and processes, such as accounting, finance, inventory, sales, purchasing, human resources, and more. ERP software helps businesses store, organize, and manage information related to business transactions, such as invoices, payments, orders, receipts, and reports. ERP software also provides real-time data analysis, reporting, and forecasting capabilities12.

NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program?

• A. Residual risk
• B. Regulatory requirements
• C. Risk tolerance
• D. Control objectives

Answer: D

Explanation:
Control objectives are the desired outcomes or goals of implementing security controls to mitigate risks and protect information assets. Control objectives should be the primary basis for establishing metrics that measure the effectiveness of an information security program, as they align with the business objectives, requirements, and expectations of the organization and its stakeholders. Metrics based on control objectives can help to evaluate the performance, efficiency, and maturity of the security program, and to identify gaps, issues, and areas for improvement. The other options are not correct because:
✑ Residual risk is the remaining risk after applying security controls. Residual risk is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a result of measuring the effectiveness of security controls. Residual risk should be monitored and reported, but it does not define the desired outcomes or goals of the security program.
✑ Regulatory requirements are the external standards, laws, and regulations that the organization must comply with to avoid legal or financial penalties. Regulatory requirements are not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a constraint or a driver for the security program. Metrics based on regulatory requirements can help to demonstrate compliance, but they may not reflect the actual effectiveness or efficiency of the security program.
✑ Risk tolerance is the level of risk that the organization is willing to accept or bear.
Risk tolerance is not a basis for establishing metrics, but rather a factor or an input for the security program. Metrics based on risk tolerance can help to prioritize and allocate resources, but they may not measure the actual outcomes or goals of the security program. References = Key Performance Indicators for Security Governance, Part 1; 14 Cybersecurity Metrics + KPIs You Must Track in 2023; KPIs in Information Security: The 10 Most Important Security Metrics; Why metrics are crucial to proving cybersecurity programs’ value; Implementing and Maintaining Security Program Metrics

NEW QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the main reason for documenting artifacts?

• A. To provide a record of the project's progress and achievements for future reference
• B. To show stakeholders that the project is on track and progressing as planned
• C. To help team members be aware of roles and responsibilities
• D. To ensure that the project team understands the importance of the project to the organization

Answer: A

Explanation:
Documenting artifacts is the main reason for creating and maintaining project
documents that relate to the management of the project, not the project deliverables. Artifacts are used to define, support, and align the project work to the project requirements and business goals. They also serve as a source of information and evidence for future projects, audits, reviews, and lessons learned1. Documenting artifacts helps to capture the project’s history, performance, outcomes, and best practices, which can be useful for organizational learning and improvement2. References = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 14: Closing the Project, page 403; Project Artifacts and How to Use Them - Rebel’s Guide to Project Management, Introduction and What are project artifacts in project management? sections; Project Management Artifacts: Definition, Types, and Phases, Introduction and What are project artifacts in project management? sections.

NEW QUESTION 18
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