NEW QUESTION 1
With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

• A. Threat Cloud Intelligence
• B. Threat Prevention Software Blade Package
• C. Endpoint Total Protection
• D. Traffic on port 25

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

• A. Stateful Packets
• B. No Match
• C. All Packets
• D. Stateless Packets

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3
Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R80 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

• A. One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.
• B. One machine
• C. Two machines
• D. Three machines

Answer: C

Explanation:
One for Security Management Server and the other one for the Security Gateway.

NEW QUESTION 4
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

• A. Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
• B. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
• C. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API
• D. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 5
What is the order of NAT priorities?

• A. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
• B. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
• C. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
• D. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
How long may verification of one file take for Sandblast Threat Emulation?

• A. up to 1 minutes
• B. within seconds cleaned file will be provided
• C. up to 5 minutes
• D. up to 3 minutes

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 7
At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

• A. Upon creation of a certificate.
• B. During the primary Security Management Server installation process.
• C. When an administrator decides to create one.
• D. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
Fill in the blank: The R80 feature _______ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

• A. Block Port Overflow
• B. Local Interface Spoofing
• C. Suspicious Activity Monitoring
• D. Adaptive Threat Prevention

Answer: C

Explanation:
Suspicious Activity Rules Solution
Suspicious Activity Rules is a utility integrated into SmartView Monitor that is used to modify access privileges upon detection of any suspicious network activity (for example, several attempts to gain unauthorized access).
The detection of suspicious activity is based on the creation of Suspicious Activity rules. Suspicious Activity rules are Firewall rules that enable the system administrator to instantly block suspicious connections that are not restricted by the currently enforced security policy. These rules, once set (usually with an expiration date), can be applied immediately without the need to perform an Install Policy operation.
References:

NEW QUESTION 9
What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

• A. Cloud, Appliance and Private
• B. Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid
• C. Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid
• D. Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

• A. Limit
• B. Resource
• C. Custom Application / Site
• D. Network Object

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

• A. Lagging
• B. Synchronized
• C. Never been synchronized
• D. Collision

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

• A. 80
• B. 4434
• C. 443
• D. 8080

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13
You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

• A. write mem <filename>
• B. show config –f <filename>
• C. save config –o <filename>
• D. save configuration <filename>

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

• A. 1 - 254
• B. 1 - 255
• C. 0 - 254
• D. 0 - 255

Answer: B

Explanation:
Virtual Router ID - Enter a unique ID number for this virtual router. The range of valid values is 1 to 255. \

NEW QUESTION 15
What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

• A. The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.
• B. The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.
• C. The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.
• D. The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 16
Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

• A. AES-128
• B. AES-256
• C. DES
• D. 3DES

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 17
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