NEW QUESTION 1

What is a specification for SSIDS?

• A. They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.
• B. They must include one number and one letter.
• C. They define the VLAN on a switch.
• D. They are case sensitive.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

• A. Yes
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

• A. root-bridge loss
• B. spanning-tree loops
• C. default gateway failure
• D. BGP neighbor flapping

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4


Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)

• A. Option A
• B. Option B
• C. Option C
• D. Option D

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5

What does physical access control regulate?

• A. access to spec fie networks based on business function
• B. access to servers to prevent malicious activity
• C. access :o computer networks and file systems
• D. access to networking equipment and facilities

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture?

• A. The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3.
• B. The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover.
• C. The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network.
• D. The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The core and distribution layers are collapsed into one layer in a collapsed- core architecture, and this layer operates on a single device or a redundant pair. This layer is responsible for the routing between the access layer and the WAN, as well as providing redundancy.

NEW QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

• A. 10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10
• B. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2
• C. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6
• D. 10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?

• A. ip route 10.10.0.0 255.255.252.0 g0/0
• B. ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 g0/0
• C. ip route 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.255 g0/0
• D. ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.240 g0/0

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

• A. SYIM flood
• B. reflection
• C. teardrop
• D. amplification

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

What is the temporary state that switch ports always enter immediately after the boot process when Rapid PVST+ is used?

• A. discarding
• B. listening
• C. forwarding
• D. learning

Answer: A

Explanation:
When Rapid PVST+ is used, switch ports always enter the blocking state immediately after the boot process 1. The blocking state is the first of the five possible port states in the Rapid PVST+ protocol. In this state, the port does not forward frames but listens to BPDUs to determine the location of the root bridge and the best path to reach it 12. After a port enters the blocking state, it transitions to the listening state and then to the learning state before finally entering the forwarding state. When Rapid PVST+ (Per-VLAN Spanning Tree Plus) is used, switch ports go through a specific state immediately after the boot process. This state is known as the "discarding" state.

NEW QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

• A. Yes
• B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

• A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.
• B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
• C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing
• D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 13

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

• A. Eliminating training needs
• B. Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing
• C. Policy-derived provisioning of resources
• D. Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning
• E. Reducing hardware footprint

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 14

Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?

• A. broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites
• B. multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location
• C. spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites
• D. unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

Answer: D

Explanation:
“The original poster makes a correct observation that EIGRP does not work in a pure IPSEC environment. IPSEC was designed to process unicast traffic.

NEW QUESTION 15

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

• A. The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.
• B. The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.
• C. The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.
• D. The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

• A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software
• B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
• C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
• D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
• E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Cisco DNA Center offers 360-degree extensibility through four distinct types of platform capabilities:+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller and enable business and IT applications to deliver intent to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation.+ Process adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other IT and network systems to streamline IT operations and processes.+ Domain adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other infrastructure domains such as data center, WAN, and security to deliver a consistent intent-based infrastructure across the entire IT environment.+ SDKs allow management to be extended to third-party vendor’s network devices to offer support for diverse environments.

NEW QUESTION 17

Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

• A. Both require fiber cable media for transmission.
• B. Both require UTP cable media for transmission.
• C. Both use the single-mode fiber type.
• D. Both use the multimode fiber type.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

• A. Local
• B. Client
• C. Enterprise
• D. Personal

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?

• A. It creates a broadcast storm.
• B. It drops the frame from the MAC table of the switch.
• C. It shuts down the source port and places It In err-disable mode.
• D. It floods the frame out of every port except the source port.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 20
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